Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Trần Thị Thu Huyền (Có đáp án + File nghe)

Nội dung text: Đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 - Năm học 2022-2023 - Trần Thị Thu Huyền (Có đáp án + File nghe)

1. DISTRICT PEOPLE'S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUAN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: March......................2023 MID-SECOND TERM TEST ENGLISH 6- 60 MINUTES School year: 2022-2023 Giám thị 1 Giám thị 1 Mã phách Họ và tên: Lớp: 6A ...SBD . DISTRICT PEOPLE'S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUAN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: March......................2023 MID-SECOND TERM TEST ENGLISH 6- 60 MINUTES School year: 2022-2023 Giám thị 1 Giám thị 1 Mã phách Họ và tên: Lớp: 6A ...SBD . DISTRICT PEOPLE'S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUAN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: March......................2023 MID-SECOND TERM TEST ENGLISH 6- 60 MINUTES School year: 2022-2023 Giám thị 1 Giám thị 1 Mã phách Họ và tên: Lớp: 6A ...SBD .
2. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG QUAN TOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL Date of test: March . 2023 MID-SECOND TERM TEST ENGLISH 6- 60 MINUTES School year: 2022- 2023 Điểm Chữ kí GK1 Chữ kí GK2 Mã phách A. LISTENING(2.0 pts) I. Listen to Mai talking about her summer holiday. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE. Statements True False 1. Mai went to Australia with her uncle. T F 2. She sat next to a man on the plane. T F 3. She went to a concert when she was in Sydney. T F 4. She likes Sydney better than Melbourne. T F II. Listen to the conversation between a customer and a receptionist at the gym and circle the correct answer. You will listen TWICE. 5. What sports are they talking about? A. tennis B. yoga C. running 6. What class time did the customer choose? A. beginner B. elementary C. advance 7. What should the customer wear? A. casual clothes B. vest C. comfortable clothes 8. What does the gym provide? A. shoes B. carpets C. mat B. LANGUAGE (1.0 pt) 1. Pronunciation Choose the words which has underlined part pronounced different from others (1,0pt) 9. A. then B. thing C. weather D. mother 10. A. fascinate B. channel C. game D. animal 11. A. boat B. nose C. cold D. tower 12.A. head B. near C. hear D. dear LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (2pts) Choose the best option from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. 13. Duong: “Last week, I played table tennis with Duy, and I won for the first time.”- “______”. A. Thank you B. Congratulations! C. Great D. That’s a good idea 14. This programme is quite interesting _______too long. I don’t like it. A. and B. but C. or D. so 15. ______draw on the walls and tables, please. A. Do B. Please C. Don’t D. Can’t 16. Last summer, I______fishing with my uncle in the afternoon. A. go B. went C. goes D. going 17. This craft isn’t mine. It’s _______. A. him B. she C. hers D. them 18. “What’s your favourite ______?” -“I like swimming.” A. channel B. games C. subject D. sport 19. Sports and games _______ an important part in our lives. A. play B. do C. go D. make 20. The food is ________. A. noisy B. delicious C. friendly D. quiet 21. Are there any good programmes______teenagers on TV tonight?
3. A. to B. of C. with D. for Use the correct tense of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences. 22. Many girls and women (do) _____________________aerobics every day to keep fit. 23. Duy (not read) _____________________now. He is playing table tennis. 24. _____________________ you (watch) TV last night? C. READING (2.0 pts) I. Read the following the passage. Choose the best answer (A,B,C or D) to complete the passage. Sydney is the site of the state New South Wales in Australia. It is the largest, oldest, and perhaps the most beautiful city in Australia. Sydney has a (25)______ of 4.5 million. Its Harbour is one of the largest in the world, and famous for the Harbour Bridge (26)______ the Opera House. The streets in the city centre are narrow with many art (27)______, restaurants, pubs, but the streets in Paddington are wide and houses are big. 25. A.population B. people C. person D. workers 26. A. because B. but C. so D. and 27. A. galleries B. museums C. temples D. pagodas II. Read the passage then answer the question below. Edson Arantes do Nascimento, better known as Pelé, is widely regarded as the best football player of all time. Pelé was born on October 21st, 1940 in the countryside of Brazil. Pelé’s father was a professional football player and taught Pelé how to play at a very young age. Pelé began his career at the age of 15. He started playing for Santos Football Club. In 1958, at the age of 17, Pelé won his first World Cup. It was the first time the World Cup was shown on TV. People around the world watched Pelé play and cheered. Pelé won three World Cups and scored 1,281 goals in total. In 1999, he was voted Football Player of the Century. Pelé is a national hero in Brazil. During his career he became famous around the world as ’The King of Football’. II. Read the passage again then answer the question below (1,0 point) 28. When was Pelé born? -> .. . 29. Who first taught him to play football? -> .. . 30. When did he become Football Player of the Century? -> .. . 31. How many goals did he score in total? -> .. . 32. What do people call him? -> .. . D. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. I. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (1,0pt) 33. they/ like/ do/ why/ cartoons/ to watch? -> . . 34. He / got bad marks/ was/ he/ lazy/ because/. -> .. .. ...... 35. This is/ my/ hers/ and /pen / that is. -> .. .. ...... 36. Where / the children/ were/ yesterday? -> .. .. ...... II. II. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0,5pt) 37. My sister can swim well. She can’t play badminton. (but) -> My sister .. ...... 38. -> Let’s listen to music now. -> How about .. ......... III. Write full sentences using the words or phrases given.(0,5pt) 39. I / turn / to / Movie channel last night/ because / I / wanted / watch / film. -> .. .......... . 40. She / loves / football / but / she / not / want / watch / football matches / TV. -> .. .......... . The end
4. ĐÁP ÁN BÀI KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 ENGLISH 6 A. LISTENING (2.0pts) I. Listen to Mai talking about her summer holiday. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE. 1. F 2. F 3. T 4. T II. Listen to the conversation between a customer and a receptionist at the gym and circle the best answer. You will listen TWICE. 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B B. LANGUAGE (4 pts) I. Pronunciation Choose the words which has underlined part pronounced different from others. 9.B 10.C 11. D 12. A LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR Choose the best option from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. 13.B 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. D Use the correct tense of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences. 22. do 23. isn’t reading 24. Did / watch C. READING (2 pts) I. Read the following the passage. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage. 25. A 26. D 27. A II. Read the passage and answer the questions below. 28. Pelé was born on October 21st, 1940. 29. Pele’s father taught him / His father taught him/ His father 30. In 1999 31. He scored 1,281 goals in total. 32. People call him ‘The King of Football’. D. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. 33. Why do they like to watch cartoons? 34. He got bad marks because he was lazy. 35. This is my pen and that is hers. 36. Where were the children yesterday? II. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. 37. My sister can swim, but she can’t play badminton. 38. How about listening to music now! III. Write full sentences using the words or phrases given. 39. I turned to Movie channel last night, because I wanted to watch a film. 40. She loves football but she doesn’t want to watch football matches on TV.
5. LISTENING TASKS Task 1. Listen to Mai talking about her summer holiday. Decide if the statements are true or false. Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE. This summer I went to visit my uncle in Australia and stayed there for a month. It was the first time I travelled alone, so it was scary. Luckily, nothing went wrong. A very kind woman sat next to me on the plane, and she helped me a lot. My uncle’s family lives in Sydney, so I got to see the cool Opera House. We even went to a concert there. It was so good! It was so hot in Sydney, so I loved going to the beaches. One weekend, my uncle took my cousins and me to Melbourne. Melbourne also has beautiful beaches, but I still like Sydney better. I think Sydney is greener and there are more activities Task 2. Listen to the conversation between a customer and a receptionist at the gym. Answer the questions with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. You will listen TWICE. Tink Customer: Hi, I want to ask about the yoga class. Receptionist: Sure! What level are you looking at, the beginner’s class or the advanced class? Customer: Beginner, please. Receptionist: We have classes for beginners on Monday, Wednesday and Saturday. There are classes both in the morning and the evening. Customer: What time does the evening class start? Receptionist: There’s one at 6:30 and one at 8. Which do you prefer? Customer: The 6:30 class, please. I can come after work. And how much is the fee? Receptionist: That will be $120 a month. Customer: And will I need any special equipment? Receptionist: No. You’ll just need to wear comfortable clothes. We provide carpets and clean towels. Customer: Sounds great. Thanks. NGƯ￿I RA Đ￿ T￿ TRƯ￿NG CM XÁC NH￿N C￿A BGH Tr￿n Th￿ Thu Huy￿n Lê Th￿ Nam H￿i Nguy￿n Th￿ Chà